CCNA3 Scaling Networks v6.0 Final Exam Answers Option A
1. What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experiences problems?
2. A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?
A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.
The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.*
This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.
This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.
3. What is the function of STP in a scalable network?
It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.
It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.
It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.*
It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.
4. What term is used to express the thickness or height of a switch?
5. What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)
HTTP access to the device
a terminal emulation client*
Telnet or SSH access to the device
a direct connection to the console or AUX port*
a connection to an operational network interface on the device
6. Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
configuring trunk links on the VTP server
configuring or changing the VTP password
configuring or changing the VTP domain name
configuring or changing the VTP version number
configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name*
7. What are three characteristics of VTP? (Choose three.)
In the default VTP mode, VLANs can be created and modified on a switch.*
Switches in VTP server mode store VLANs in the vlan.dat database.*
VTP-enabled switches exchange three types of advertisements: summary routes, subnet advertisements, and advertisement requests from transparent bridges.
The switch configuration must be saved and the switch reloaded to reset a configuration revision number.
VTP updates are exchanged across trunk links only.*
Switches in different VTP domains can exchange updates if revision numbers are the same.
8. A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?
Configure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.*
Associate all ports of the new switch to a VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
Configure the VLANs on the new switch.
Configure all ports on the new switch to access mode.
9. What is the purpose of the vlan.dat file on a switch?
It holds the running configuration.
It holds the saved configuration.
It holds the VLAN database.*
It holds the operating system.
10. Refer to the exhibit.
The configuration shows commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host H1 cannot communicate with H2. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?
port mode on the two switch FastEthernet ports
router port configuration
11. Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?
Include a router in the topology.
Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.*
Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.
12. Refer to the exhibit.
Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
The other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2.
There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.*
VTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch.
VLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain.
This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.*
13. What eliminates switching loops?
Spanning Tree Protocol*
Time to Live
14. A small company network has six interconnected Layer 2 switches. Currently all switches are using the default bridge priority value. Which value can be used to configure the bridge priority of one of the switches to ensure that it becomes the root bridge in this design?
15. What is the value used to determine which port on a non-root bridge will become a root port in a STP network?
the highest MAC address of all the ports in the switch
the lowest MAC address of all the ports in the switch
the VTP revision number
the path cost*
16. Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)
SW1 will become the root bridge.
SW2 will become the root bridge.
SW2 will get a port blocked.
SW4 will get a port blocked.*
SW3 will become the root bridge.*
SW4 will become the root bridge.
17. Which three STP states were replaced with the RSTP discarding state? (Choose three.)
18. A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?
Any switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
Any trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather than waiting to converge.
Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.*
Any switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.
19. As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches*
grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
20. Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?
channel-group 2 mode auto
interface port-channel 2
channel-group 1 mode desirable
interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5*
21. A network administrator configured an EtherChannel link with three interfaces between two switches. What is the result if one of the three interfaces is down?
The EtherChannel fails.
The remaining two interfaces continue to load balance traffic.*
The remaining two interfaces become separate links between the two switches.
One interface becomes an active link for data traffic and the other becomes a backup link.
22. When EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force an interface into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets?
23. Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical link?
24. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?
HSRP uses active and standby routers.*
It uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts.
It allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers.
HSRP is nonproprietary.
25. What is the term used to describe a network topology where the subnets from a major classful network address space are separated from each other by addresses from a different major classful network address?
26. What type of packets are sent when there is a change in the EIGRP topology?
triggered bounded update*
27. Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?
28. What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?
The path with the least number of hops.
The path with the smallest delays.
The path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links.*
The path that includes the fastest single bandwidth link.
29. Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)
the link router interface IP address and subnet mask*
the type of network link*
the link next-hop IP address
the link bandwidth
the cost of that link*
30. What indicates to a link-state router that a neighbor is unreachable?
if the router no longer receives routing updates
if the router no longer receives hello packets*
if the router receives an update with a hop count of 16
if the router receives an LSP with previously learned information
31. What are three features of EIGRP? (Choose three.)
uses the Shortest Path First algorithm
establishes neighbor adjacencies*
uses the Reliable Transport Protocol*
sends full routing table updates periodically
broadcasts updates to all EIGRP routers
supports equal and unequal cost load balancing*
32. What capability do protocol-dependent modules provide to the EIGRP routing protocol?
route different Layer 3 protocols*
exchange summary routes between areas
combine routes learned from different protocols into a single routing table
load balance between routing protocols
33. When are EIGRP update packets sent?
only when necessary*
when learned routes age out
every 5 seconds via multicast
every 30 seconds via broadcast
34. Refer to the exhibit.
Which command should be used to configure EIGRP to only advertise the network that is attached to the gigabit Ethernet 0/1 interface?
network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63*
network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.192
network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.127
network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.128
35. Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?
It carries the geographical information of the organization.
It functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.*
It is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.
It identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.
36. Which two parameters does EIGRP use by default to calculate the best path? (Choose two.)
transmit and receive load
37. An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?
The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.
The router uses the default route.
The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.*
The router will query neighbors for an alternate route.
38. When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active state?
when the EIGRP domain is converged
when there is outgoing traffic toward the destination network
when there is an EIGRP message from the successor of the destination network
when the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and there is no feasible successor available*
39. Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?
the 32-bit router ID
the IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface
the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address
the interface IPv6 link-local address*
40. Refer to the exhibit.
Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?
41. Which command will configure an IPv6 default static route?
router(config)# ipv6 ::/64 s0/0/0
router(config-rtr)# redistribute static
router(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 s0/0/0*
router(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing
42. Which statement describes the load balancing behavior of EIGRP?
EIGRP for IPv4 supports unequal cost load balancing, but EIGRP for IPv6 does not.
EIGRP for IPv6 supports unequal cost load balancing, but EIGRP for IPv4 does not.
Neither EIGRP for IPv4 nor EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.
Both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.*
43. What routing protocol can be configured to load balance across paths with unequal metrics through the use of the variance command?
44. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.*
Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.*
The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
45. A router is participating in an OSPFv2 domain. What will always happen if the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OSPF router?
OSPF will run a new DR/BDR election.
SPF will run and determine which neighbor router is “down”.
A new dead interval timer of 4 times the hello interval will start.
OSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database.*
46. In an OSPFv2 configuration, what is the effect of entering the command network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0?
It changes the router ID of the router to 192.168.1.1.
It enables OSPF on all interfaces on the router.
It tells the router which interface to turn on for the OSPF routing process.*
It allows all 192.168.1.0 networks to be advertised.
47. What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
Cost equals bandwidth.
A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.*
48. Which two addresses represent valid destination addresses for an OSPFv3 message? (Choose two.)
49. Refer to the exhibit.
R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?
50. What information is contained in OSPF type 3 LSAs?
networks reachable in other areas*
networks learned from other routing protocols
the router ID of the DR to all routers in the area
the router ID of an ASBR and the route to reach it
51. Refer to the exhibit.
A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea. However, none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the problem?
There are no interarea routes in the routing table for network 192.168.1.0.*
The OSPF routing process is inactive.
The link to the new area is down.
The router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.
52. Refer to the exhibit.
For the given topology, what are three results of the OSPF DR and BDR elections ? (Choose three.)
R1 is BDR for segment A.
R2 is DR for segment A.
R3 is DR for segment A.*
R4 is DR for segment B.
R5 is BDR for segment B.*
R3 is DR for segment B.*
53. Refer to the exhibit.
In this scenario, Area 40 cannot be connected directly to Area 0. Which OSPF network type must be configured in Area 1 to connect these areas?
54. Refer to the exhibit.
What method can be used to enable an OSPF router to advertise a default route to neighboring OSPF routers?
Use a static route pointing to the ISP and redistribute it.
Use a static route pointing to the ISP and redistribute it.
Use the redistribute static command on R0-A.
Use the default-information originate command on ISP.
Use the default-information originate command on R0-A.*
55. Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator has configured the OSPF timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of having those manually configured timers?
The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.*
R1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.
The hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.
The neighbor adjacency has formed.
56. Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers as shown. The routers are unable to form a neighbor adjacency. What should be done to fix the problem?
Implement the command no passive-interface Serial0/1.
Implement the command network 192.168.2.4 0.0.0.3 area 0 on router R2.
Implement the command network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 on router R2.
Change the router-id of router R2 to 126.96.36.199.
57. Match the description to the term. (Not all options are used.)
Place the options in the following order:
This is where the details of the neighboring routers can be found. -> adjacency database
This is the algorithm used by OSPF. -> Shortest Path First
All the routers are in the backbone area. -> Single-area OSPF
– not scored –
This is where you can find the topology table. -> link-state database
– not scored –
58. Match each OSPF router type description with its name. (Not all options are used.)
Routers that have all their interfaces in the same area and have identical LSDBs.
Area border routers:
All the routers of this type maintain separate LSDBs for each area to which they connect.
Autonomous System Boundary Routers:
Routers that have at least one interface attached to an external internetwork (another autonomous system), such as a non-OSPF network.
59. Match each description to its corresponding LSA type. (Not all options are used.)
60. Match the order of precedence to the process logic that an OSPFv3 network router goes through in choosing a router ID. (Not all options are used.)
The router displays a console message to configure the router ID manually. => priority 4
The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of an active interface. => priority 3
The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of a loopback interface. => prority 2
The router uses the explicitly configured router ID if any. => priority 1